Friday, 8 May 2020

AD0-E100 Adobe Experience Manager 6 Assets Developer Exam

About Adobe Certified Expert (ACE) Exams
An Adobe Certified Expert demonstrates expertise in helping clients realize value in an Adobe solution.
Adobe's certification exams follow industry-accepted procedures to ensure validity and reliability. We work with industry experts to create our exams, which represent real-world requirements and objectives for the job roles we certify.
This guide is designed to provide the recommendations needed to prepare for your Adobe Certified Expert exam, and help you determine when you are ready to take the exam.

AEM Business Practitioner General Exam Information
• Exam name: AEM Business Practitioner Exam
• Exam number: AD0-E102
• Number of questions: 50
• Time limit: 80 minutes
• Format: multiple choice, multiple select
• Language offered: English
• Delivery: online proctored (requires camera access) or test center proctored
• Passing score: All Adobe exams are reported on a scale of 300 to 700. The passing score for each exam is 550. For more information about scaled scoring, visit the FAQs.
• Exam price: $180 (Ready to register? Click here.)

AEM Business Practitioner Exam Target Audience
• Individuals in partner organizations and freelancers who perform an author or analyst job role for AEM solutions
• Marketing specialists who know the features and capabilities needed to engage developers to define a solution for business needs
• Customer Power Users or Product Owners

The AEM Business Practitioner Role
At a minimum, the Adobe-certified AEM Business Practitioner has experience with AEM features and capabilities needed to engage developers to find business solutions, a deep insight into modules such as Sites, Assets, and Forms, and an understanding of what modules are present and be able to recommend Adobe Experience Cloud solutions to meet business needs.
It is recommended that the candidate has at least two years of relevant field experience before testing.

The minimally-qualified AEM Business Practitioner should be able to perform the following tasks without any assistance:
• Understand the capabilities provided by out-of-the-box components available in AEM (what can and cannot be done), and when customer development is needed
• Use the AEM Content Management Systems (CMS)
• Use AEM to manage Digital Assets
• Use Experience Fragments
• Understand and participate in workflows
• Analyze business needs to identify a solution
• Create business requirements documents that developers can use in the creation of an AEM website
• Describe all the mobile capabilities of AEM (e.g., content services and responsive web design)

AEM Business Practitioner Exam Topics
The tasks measured by the exam are grouped into the following domains:
Am I ready?
Yes
No

Education
• List relevant AEM features and capabilities
• Recommend how to leverage AEM features to meet business needs
• Apply procedural concepts necessary to conduct training for authors

Architecture
• Recommend an Information Architecture that leverages AEM Standard Features to meet business needs
• Describe how AEM integrates with third-party services
• Define roles and rights
• Describe caching approaches

Business Analysis
• Map standard modules of AEM to different business problems for the customer
• Apply content management concepts for AEM modules
• Identify typical project stakeholders
• Apply procedural concepts necessary to support collaboration of all parties involved
• Determine how to meet the core business goals while remaining within budget and/or scope
• Determine how questions from developers should be answered with respect to the business goals

Solution
• Determine how to configure and use content components to show best practices of AEM
• Verify the correct implementation of features, and locate and describe occurring errors

Distribution of Content Covered on the Exam:
The questions on the exam are distributed as follows for each domain. (Note: each question carries the same weight and there is no partial credit for any question)
Domain
Percent of Exam
Education
Architecture
Business Analysis
Solution

How do I know if I am ready to take the exam?
Nothing can guarantee that you will pass your test, however; the more practical work experiences you have and the more training you complete, the better your chances are to pass the test.
Since Adobe exams measure knowledge and skills for a specific job role, one of the best ways to prepare for the exam is to ensure you have the minimum work experience, as described in this guide.
What training is available to help me prepare for the exam?

Is training required?
You are not required to complete training before taking the exam; however, training can significantly increase your knowledge of and skills with Adobe Experience Manager. It is important to note that training alone will not provide you with the knowledge and skills required to pass an exam. Successful, on-the-job experience, is critical to providing you the knowledge needed to pass the exam.
Recommended study materials for this exam:

Courses
• Manage and Deliver Digital Assets Using Adobe Experience Manager
• Create and Manage Correspondence using Adobe Experience Manager
• Design Adaptive Forms Using Adobe Experience Manager
• Create Web Experiences Using Adobe Experience Manager
• Develop Multilingual and Multinational Sites in Adobe Experience Manager
• What's New in AEM 6.4
• What's New in AEM 6.4 – Custom

Online Documentation
• Experience Manager Sites 6.4 Administering User Guide
• Experience Manager Sites 6.3 Deploying User Guide
• Experience Manager Dispatcher User Guide
• AEM Sites Implementation Guide
• Experience Manager 6.4 AEM Communities User Guide
• AEM Assets Discovery Checklist
• Experience Manager Sites 6.4 Developing User Guide
• Experience Manager Sites 6.4 Authoring User Guide
• Experience Manager 6.4 Assets User Guide
• Experience Manager 6.4 Forms User Guide
• AEM Assets 6.3 Implementation Guide

QUESTION 1
An author uploads a PDF document and receives a “Restricted Files” error.
What is causing this problem?

A. The file extension is not registered as an allowed asset MIMES in the OSGI config, Day CQ DAM Asset Upload Restriction.
B. The file extension is case-sensitive and should be all lower case.
C. The user does not have permission to upload an asset with the specific file extension.
D. The MIME Type mapping setup for the file extension does not exist in OSGI config, Day CQ Scene7 Asset Mime type Service.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company uploaded several images that represent products, and each product is associated with a unique
SKU number. The product owner would like the ability to search for multiple products by SKU number.
What two steps must be completed to do this? (Choose two.)

A. Customize the Assets Admin Search rail to include a Single Property Predicate and configure the property name to the SKU number
B. Customize the image metadata schema and add a new Multi Value Text field for the SKU number
C. Customize the Assets Admin Search rail to include a Multi Value Property Predicate and configure the property name to the SKU number
D. Customize the image metadata schema and add a new Single Line Text field for the SKU number

Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 3
A developer created a custom metadata profile and assigned default values to some fields. The developer
applied this custom profile to a folder in the DAM that already uses a different metadata profile. When viewing
the metadata properties of the existing assets in a subfolder, the developer noticed that the custom metadata profile was not applied to these assets.
What is the cause of this issue?

A. The contents are cached and clearing the browser cache should resolve this issue.
B. The new metadata profile will only be applied to new assets that will be added to the folder later.
C. The custom metadata profile has some invalid field values and is preventing it from being applied to a folder.
D. The new metadata profile will only be applied to assets that are direct children of the folder.

Correct Answer: B
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Friday, 24 April 2020

1z0-816 Java SE 11 Programmer II

Exam Title: Java SE 11 Programmer II
Exam Number: 1Z0-816
Exam Price: Rs.22,584 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 180 Minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing Score: 63%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Java 11

Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Certified Professional: Java SE 11 Developer
Oracle Certified Professional: Java SE 11 Developer (Upgrade from OCA Java 7 & 8)

Take Recommended Training Courses

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Java SE: Programming II
Java Programming Learning Subscription
Core Java Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Java SE 11 Certification Overview and Sample Questions

Java Fundamentals
Create and use final classes
Create and use inner, nested and anonymous classes
Create and use enumerations

Java Interfaces
Create and use interfaces with default methods
Create and use interfaces with private methods

Functional Interface and Lambda Expressions
Define and write functional interfaces
Create and use lambda expressions including statement lambdas, local-variable for lambda parameters

Built-in Functional Interfaces
Use interfaces from the java.util.function package
Use core functional interfaces including Predicate, Consumer, Function and Supplier
Use primitive and binary variations of base interfaces of java.util.function package

Migration to a Modular Application
Migrate the application developed using a Java version prior to SE 9 to SE 11 including top-down and bottom-up migration, splitting a Java SE 8 application into modules for migration
Use jdeps to determine dependencies and identify ways to address the cyclic dependencies

Concurrency
Create worker threads using Runnable, Callable and use an ExecutorService to concurrently execute tasks
Use java.util.concurrent collections and classes including CyclicBarrier and CopyOnWriteArrayList
Write thread-safe code
Identify threading problems such as deadlocks and livelocks

I/O (Fundamentals and NIO2)
Read data from and write console and file data using I/O Streams
Use I/O Streams to read and write files
Read and write objects by using serialization
Use the Path interface to operate on file and directory paths
Use the Files class to check, delete, copy or move a file or directory
Use the Stream API with Files

Database Applications with JDBC
Connect to databases using JDBC URLs and DriverManager
Use PreparedStatement to perform CRUD operations
Use PreparedStatement and CallableStatement APIs to perform database operations

Annotations
Describe the purpose of annotations and typical usage patterns
Apply annotations to classes and methods
Describe commonly used annotations in the JDK
Declare custom annotations

Exception Handling and Assertions
Use the try-with-resources construct
Create and use custom exception classes
Test invariants by using assertions

Generics and Collections
Use wrapper classes, autoboxing and autounboxing
Create and use generic classes, methods with diamond notation and wildcards
Describe the Collections Framework and use key collection interfaces
Use Comparator and Comparable interfaces
Create and use convenience methods for collections

Java Stream API
Describe the Stream interface and pipelines
Use lambda expressions and method references

Lambda Operations on Streams
Extract stream data using map, peek and flatMap methods
Search stream data using search findFirst, findAny, anyMatch, allMatch and noneMatch methods
Use the Optional class
Perform calculations using count, max, min, average and sum stream operations
Sort a collection using lambda expressions
Use Collectors with streams, including the groupingBy and partitioningBy operations

Services in a Modular Application
Describe the components of Services including directives
Design a service type, load services using ServiceLoader, check for dependencies of the services including consumer and provider modules

Parallel Streams
Develop code that uses parallel streams
Implement decomposition and reduction with streams

Secure Coding in Java SE Application
Prevent Denial of Service in Java applications
Secure confidential information in Java application
Implement Data integrity guidelines- injections and inclusion and input validation
Prevent external attack of the code by limiting Accessibility and Extensibility, properly handling input validation, and mutability
Securely constructing sensitive objects
Secure Serialization and Deserialization

Localization
Use the Locale class
Use resource bundles
Format messages, dates, and numbers with Java

QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:
Path currentFile = Paths.get(“/scratch/exam/temp.txt”);
Path outputFile = Paths get(“/scratch/exam/new.txt”);
Path directory = Paths.get(“/scratch/”);
Files.copy(currentFile, outputFile);
Files.copy(outputFile, directory);
Files.delete (outputFile);
The /scratch/exam/temp.txt file exists. The /scratch/exam/new.txt and /scratch/new.txt files do not exist.
What is the result?

A. /scratch/exam/new.txt and /scratch/new.txt are deleted.
B. The program throws a FileaAlreadyExistsException.
C. The program throws a NoSuchFileException.
D. A copy of /scratch/exam/new.txt exists in the /scratch directory and /scratch/exam/new.txt is deleted.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which code fragment does a service use to load the service provider with a Print interface?

A. private Print print = com.service.Provider.getInstance();
B. private java.util.ServiceLoader<Print> loader = ServiceLoader.load (Print.class);
C. private java.util.ServiceLoader<Print> loader = new java.util.ServiceLoader<>();
D. private Print print = new com.service.Provider.PrintImpl();

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Given:
var fruits = List.of(“apple”, “orange”, “banana”, “lemon”);
You want to examine the first element that contains the character n.
Which statement will accomplish this?

A. String result = fruits.stream().filter(f −> f.contains(“n”)).findAny();
B. fruits.stream().filter(f −> f.contains(“n”)).forEachOrdered(System.out::print);
C. Optional<String> result = fruits.stream().filter(f −> f.contains (“n”)).findFirst ();
D. Optional<String> result = fruits.stream().anyMatch(f −> f.contains(“n”));

Correct Answer: B
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Wednesday, 19 February 2020

ASIS-CPP CPP - Certified Payroll Professional Exam

Certification Provider: ASIS
Exam: ASIS - Certified Protection Professional
Duration: 2 Hours
Number of questions in the database: 767
Exam Version: Feb. 20, 2020
Exam Topics:

Topic 1: Single Topic
Becoming a Certified Protection Professional (CPP)

Why Apply for the CPP?

The Certified Protection Professional (CPPⓇ) is considered the “gold standard” certification for security management professionals and demonstrates your knowledge and competency in seven key domains of security. Globally recognized as the standard of excellence for security management professionals.
What's on the Exam?

The CPP exam consists of 200 scored multiple-choice questions and may contain 25 randomly distributed pre-test (unscored) questions for a total of up to 225 questions. The four hours allowed takes into consideration the review of pre-test items.

The exam covers tasks, knowledge, and skills in seven broad domains that have been identified by CPPs as the major areas involved in security management.

Eligibility

Nine (9) years of security experience*, at least three (3) years of which shall have been in responsible charge* of a security function
OR

Earned a bachelor’s degree or higher from an accredited institution of higher education and have seven (7) years of security experience*, at least three (3) years of which shall have been in responsible charge* of a security function.
AND

Be employed full-time in a security-related role
Not have been convicted of any criminal offense that would reflect negatively on the security profession, ASIS, or the certification program
Sign and agree to abide by the ASIS Certification Code of Conduct
Agree to abide by the policies of the ASIS Certification programs as outlined in the Certification Handbook.


*Definitions for these terms can be found in the Certification Handbook.

Reference Material
We encourage candidates to refer to the below reference materials as you prepare for the CPP certification exam. Our item writers and reviewers use these same materials to reference the correct answers on our exams. Remember: the ASIS exams are experienced-based; therefore, you will need to apply your own experience to help you answer the questions correctly. Please don’t attempt to memorize these reference sets.

Protection of Assets (POA)
POA is a comprehensive reference covering a range of technical and managerial subjects providing the solutions necessary to meet the security demands of the 21st century.

ASIS Standards & Guidelines
ASIS Standards set forth industry-recommended best practices on specific concerns inherent to the security industry and provide tools and processes for implementation. Along with POA, these seven standards and guidelines make up the CPP reference set. Standards: CSO, ORM.1, WVPI.1; Guidelines: FPSM, GSRA, IAP, PBS.

Free download for ASIS members
Standards & Guidelines CPP softcover bundle

CPP Practice Exam
The CPP practice exam contains items that once appeared on the actual certification exams but are now retired. Use the practice exam to familiarize yourself with how exam items will appear on the current exam(s).​

Get ready to prepare like you’ve never prepared before

As we often say at ExamTopics, work smarter not harder. You are about to see a study guide that took hours of hard collection work, expert preparation, and constant feedback. That’s why we know this exam prep will help you get that high-score on your journey to certification. Our study guides are the real thing. Our study guides are so accurate, we have to fight the droves of clone test prep sites that actually steal our material. Don’t worry though, we believe by offering our material free and upholding good values, ExamTopics will always have a strong community and a coveted place in the certification world.
Your journey to pass the ASIS-CPP

Perhaps this is your first step toward the certification, or perhaps you are coming back for another round. We hope that you feel this exam challenges you, teaches you, and prepares you to pass the ASIS-CPP. If this is your first study guide, take a moment to relax. This could be the first step to a new high-paying job and an AMAZING career. If you’ve been around the block a few times, consider taking a moment and answering some questions from newer techies. After all, it’s our great community that illuminates the material and helps build something great.
What should you know before studying the ASIS-CPP?

Every exam and certification has different requirements. If this is a serious venture, make sure to read the prerequisites before preceding. Nothing is worse than wasting months studying for an exam you can’t take or passing an exam that won’t help you get a certification! Our easy search tools are designed to help you find relevant information as well and search for a variety of different exams.
What is the ASIS-CPP focused on?

The ASIS-CPP or as it’s also known, the ASIS - Certified Protection Professional, like all tests, there is a bit of freedom on ASIS's part to exam an array of subjects. That means knowing the majority of ASIS-CPP content is required because they test randomly on the many subjects available. Be aware too that experience requirements often exist because they’ve observed the average person and what is required. You can always push past that to succeed with the ASIS-CPP but it may take some extra work.

Remember that incredible things take time. And just like ancient monuments took years of effort, certification is not easy. It is not always quick either. But it is worth it! Our toolset allows you to engage with an incredible community of expert tech workers and add to the conversation at ExamTopics. If you have questions, don’t forget to leave a comment and reach out. It’s here that you’ll get personalized help unheard of on test prep sites, without the outrageous fees.
Always check the foundation

Some certifications have requirements going back to older exams, while others use two or more tests to help someone pass. If you find the ASIS-CPP is over your head, that’s ok. It might make sense to see if a lower level exam will give you some clarity.
If offered, read the exam objectives

The exam objectives are different for every single exam and usually provided by the certification provider. These normally tell the test taker what subjects are relevant, what they need to know, and why the exam seeks to cover these topics. It’s important to find them out for your specific exam. This can be found on nearly every vendor website and greatly informs the way you’ll study! Don’t worry though, we have taken those objectives into account and seek to create a testing experience comparable to an actual exam.
Remember that certification is quite rewarding

It can be hard to keep your focus on studying but remember that the best jobs in the world are only a few tests away. Whether you enter Cyber Security or do entry level tech work, certification is a clear, learnable, and rewarding path to careers that pay a LOT of money. They offer better work-life balance and you’ll get in with some of the major leaders in the business world. So don’t give up, it is worth it, and all this work will pay off!
Using ExamTopics

Practicing for an exam like the ASIS-CPP can be a full-time job. In fact some exams are actually paid for by work because they are so intensive. Certification is not simple and takes immense work. It takes time, practice, and the right focus. We here at ExamTopics understand that. We understand that because we have been in this industry for years and working in space full of less savory test prep sources. These terrible prep sources pushed our team to make a positive change in the Exam space. We got sick and tired of seeing potential exam candidates get price-gouged over CCNA braindumps. We couldn’t handle knowing that hard workers from across the world, seeking new skills and a better life, get tricked into paying absurd amounts for low-quality exam materials. Often material that was out of date or at best, available online through community sites without hurting the wallet. And it had to stop. You are ready to jump in!

That’s it, the next page will be full of practice questions. Challenging material. And best of all, a chance to hone your skills. It’s ok if you feel in over your head. We all did at some point, this next step is about pushing through that fear and getting ready to tackle something as challenging as the ASIS-CPP. If you get stuck, reach out. If you see others stuck, help them. And as always, like we love to say, work smarter NOT harder!

Question: 1
Of all reported bomb threats, it is estimated that the percentage of real threats is:

A. 2 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
E. 22 percent

Answer: A

Question: 2
A full evacuation of a building should be ordered upon receipt of a bomb threat when:

A. There is a reasonable suspicion that a bomb is present.
B. Any threat is received.
C. The threat is received during working hours.
D. The caller has a foreign accent.
E. None of the above.

Answer: A

Question: 3
Which of the following may be an indication of a planted bomb?

A. Loose electrical fittings
B. Tin foil
C. Fresh plaster or cement
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Question: 4
If a kidnapper warns the family of the victim not to notify police, the best course of action is to:

A. Do nothing
B. Contact a reliable detective agency.
C. Notify the police anyway.
D. Notify the telephone company.
E. None of the above.

Answer: C

Question: 5
The ZYX Corporation is in the process of relocating its facilities after several years of planning. The
president, who is well aware of the necessity for emergency planning, directs you as the security
manager to draw up necessary plans to cope with natural disasters. Which of the following is not a
valid assumption to be considered?

A. Some plants or facilities just are not vulnerable to natural disasters and therefore should not be involved in the planning.
B. Most disasters considered likely will arrive with very little warning.
C. Each plant and facility must be evaluated in terms of disaster, most likely to occur as well as the facility's capacity to cope with and minimize the effects of the disaster.
D. In assessing the vulnerability of individual plants and other facilities, environmental, indigenous, and economic factors must be considered.
E. Most disasters considered likely will have a rapid development and have a potential for substantial destruction.

Answer: A

Question: 6
A natural hazard that poses a threat to many areas of this country is a hurricane. As soon as the
weather forecaster determines a particular section of the coast will feel the full effects of a
hurricane, he issues a hurricane warning. Such a warning specifies which of the following?

A. Coastal areas where the eye of the storm will pass
B. Coastal areas where winds of 74 mph or higher are expected
C. Coastal areas where inhabitants should listen closely for further advisories and be ready to take precautionary actions
D. The fact that there are definite indications a hurricane is forming and a name to the storm is given
E. Coastal areas where winds are 100 mph or higher are expected

Answer: B

Question: 7
One natural disaster that seems to occur with increasing frequency is the tornado. It is necessary for
the security manager to be knowledgeable regarding all aspects of tornados so that adequate
disaster plans can be formulated. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Tornados are violent local storms with whirling winds of tremendous speed that can reach 200-400 mph.
B. The individual tornado appears as a rotating, funnel-shaped cloud that extends toward the ground from the base of a thundercloud.
C. The tornado spins like a top, may sound like the roaring of an airplane or locomotive, and varies from gray to black in color.
D. Tornados only occur in the middle plains, southeastern states, and some Middle Atlantic States.
E. The width of a tornado path ranges generally from 200 yards to one mile.

Answer: D

Question: 8
You are the security manager of the ZYW Corporation located in Phoenix, Arizona. A report is
received from the national weather service that a tornado warning has been issued. Which of the
following would be the correct action to take?

A. Institute appropriate emergency notification procedures as this means that a tornado has actually been sighted in the area or is indicated by radar.
B. Alert top management as this indicates tornados are expected to develop.
C. Request the weather service to keep you advised on a 15minute basis.
D. Have all windows in the facility closed and be alert to additional weather reports.
E. Do nothing because tornados are usually not spotted in Arizona and the report is probably in error.

Answer: A

Question: 9
As the security manager of a large corporation located in Southern California, you are charged with
formulating a disaster plan to handle emergencies that arise as a result of earthquakes. Which of the
following warnings to be issued to employees should not be included in the plan?

A. If employees are outside, proceed to the nearest building and head for the basement promptly.
B. If employees are indoors at the time of shaking, they should stay there.
C. If inside, take cover under sturdy furniture.
D. If inside, stay near the center of the building.
E. If inside, stay away from glass windows and doors.

Answer: A

Question: 10
Earthquakes constitute a definite concern to the emergency management responsibilities of security
managers in certain areas of our country. Accordingly, it is incumbent upon security professionals to
have a clear understanding of the basic facts concerning earthquakes. Which of the following is an
incorrect statement?

A. Earthquakes are unpredictable and strike without warning.
B. Earthquakes may last from a few seconds to as long as five minutes.
C. The actual movement of the ground in an earthquake is usually the direct cause of injury or death.
D. Earthquakes may also trigger landslides and generate tidal waves.
E. Most casualties during an earthquake result from falling material.

Answer: C

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Tuesday, 18 February 2020

QSSA2018 Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Exam - June 2018 Release Exam

Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification
The Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Exam measures your ability to identify requirements for environments, install and set up Qlik Sense Enterprise, manage environments, and monitor and troubleshoot. This exam has 50 multiple-choice questions to answer in 2 hours.

Prerequisites
At least 6 months experience as an administrator of a Microsoft Windows Server-based environment
Experience working with Qlik Sense sites and the Qlik Management Console, to provide data and application governance, library maintenance, as well as user and application security
Experience managing the policies and options that run the Qlik Sense servers and apps
Experience creating rules and managing the visualization streams
Knowledge of networking and Active Directory configuration, proxies, intermediate web servers, load balancers, etc.
Familiarity with Windows tools and logs created (e.g., Event Viewer, Services Console, DCOM Console, Windows Registry)
Experience using NSLookUp, Telnet, Ping, NetStat, Fiddler, and other browser tools to troubleshoot connectivity, interoperability, configuration, performance, etc.

Recommended Preparation Resources
Instructor-Led Training: Deploy and Administer Qlik Sense
Qlik Continuous Classroom: System Administrator
Qlik Sense Certification Exam Study Guide
FREE Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Practice Questions

Exam Topics

Plan Installation (20% of the exam)
Given a scenario, recommend environment architecture
Given a scenario, determine appropriate security strategies

Install System (22% of the exam)
Configure initial environment for Qlik Sense access
Configure multi-node deployment
Configure proxy and virtual proxies

Manage Content (34% of the exam)
Configure tasks based on business and system needs
Apply procedural concepts to organize external content (Content Library and Extensions)
Apply steps to manage streams and apps
Apply steps to manage privileges in the Qlik Sense deployment
Configure user roles and properties

Monitor and Maintain (24% of the exam)

Investigate Qlik Sense errors and issues
Given a scenario, demonstrate an understanding of how to monitor system performance
Apply the steps to perform a backup and restore
Apply the steps to perform upgrade(s)

QUESTION 1
A company decides to move servers from on premise to a cloud. A system administrator performs a backup,
restore, and brings the server online. When users open the app on the hub, they get an error message indicating the app could not be found.
The system administrator confirms that apps are present in the required location and NO changes have been made.
What could be causing the issue?

A. Shared persistence path is NOT reachable
B. Synchronized persistence is in place
C. The app has been moved from one stream to another
D. The security rules were broken when the servers were migrated

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A single-node Qlik Sense environment has all services up and running. Users report apps and sheets are slow to open.
A system administrator works remotely and does NOT have access to the shared file system for the
environment. The system administrator’s computer can make requests to the Qlik Sense Repository Service.
Due to the system performance issues, a system administrator can NOT run any new reloads. The system
administrator receives a warning email about high RAM usage on the server.
Which step should the system administrator take to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Request the “http://<server.domain.com>/engine/performancecheck/” API
B. Access the server remotely and inspect the logs in %ProgramData%\Qlik\Sense\Log\Engine
C. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/engine/healthcheck/” API
D. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/qmc/audit” API

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A system administrator creates a custom property called “dept” and assigns it to users and apps. The value of
the custom property are department names such as Accounting, Finance, and IT. Users with the same value
for “dept” can see and edit each other’s apps. Users with different values for the property should NOT see each other’s apps.
Which security rule should the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A. Resource: App_*, Stream_*
Conditions: user.@dept=app.@dept

B. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.id

C. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.@dept

D. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.description

Correct Answer: A

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Monday, 17 February 2020

HPE6-A71 Aruba Certified Mobility Professional Exam

Exam ID HPE6-A71
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Implementing Aruba Mobility, Rev. 19.21

Additional study materials

Exam description
This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum of two years of advanced-level implementation experience with Aruba WLAN solutions and a minimum of three years of experience with wired LAN infrastructure and switching and routing technologies.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

20%  Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and explain their uses.
Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel, split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3 clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.

20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions.
• Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.

38% Implement advanced services and security.
• Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.

10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions.
• Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.

12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions.
• Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.

QUESTION 1
An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a private WAN circuit that provides
connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is connected to a network storage
device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about sending this traffic in cleartext across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?

A. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
B. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
C. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
D. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to modify a VAP used for a branch office RAP. The VAP's operating mode is currently
defined as backup and uses tunnel mode forwarding. The administrator wants to implement split-tunnel forwarding mode in the VAP.
Which WLAN operating mode must the administrator define for the VAP before the tunnel forwarding mode can be changed to split-tunnel?

A. Trusted
B. Always
C. Persistent
D. Standard

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on which information?

A. controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
B. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
C. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
D. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An administrator supports a RAP at a branch office. A user's device that is attached to the Ethernet port is assigned an 802.1X AAA policy and is configured for tunneled node.
How is the user's traffic transmitted to the corporate office?

A. It is not encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
B. It is encapsulated by GRE and protected with IPSec.
C. It is not encapsulated by GRE but is protected with IPSec.
D. It is encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.

Correct Answer: B

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Monday, 10 February 2020

MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam

Description
MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1A MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect should be able to define and be responsible for an organization’s Anypoint Platform strategy. The MCPA – Level 1 exam validates that an architect has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able to:

Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and other teams.
Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and applications in the organization.
Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.

A downloadable data sheet for the exam can be found here.
Format Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English

The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each attempt.

Cost $375 The exam can be purchased with one of the following. Each includes a coupon for one free retake.

1.5 Flexible Training Credits (FTC)
A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks course

Additional retakes (attempts 3 to 5) are $250 or 1 FTC and do not come with a free retake.

Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.

Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks course. Candidates should be familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the concepts.

The following resources are available to assist in a candidate’s preparation:

Instructor-led training: Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks
Recommended as the most effective and efficient method of preparation 3-day class
Private and public classes available
Onsite and online classes available
Includes a certification voucher for this exam
Practice quiz 20+ multiple-choice questions
Comparable difficulty to the proctored exam

Topics
The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.


Explaining Application Network Basics
Explain MuleSoft’s proposal for closing the IT delivery gap
Describe the role and characteristics of the "modern API"
Define and describe the benefits of API-led connectivity and application networks
Define outcome-based delivery (OBD)
Correctly use the terms API, API implementation, API client, API consumer, and API invocation
Describe the capabilities and high-level components of Anypoint Platform

ARC:NET Module 1
ARC:NET Module 2

Establishing Organizational and Platform Foundations
Describe the purpose and roles of a C4E
Identify KPIs to measure the success of a C4E
Given specific organizational requirements, preferences, and constraints, identify all suitable Anypoint Platform deployment options
Select Anypoint Platform identity management vs client management for the correct purpose

ARC:NET Module 2
ARC:NET Module 3

Designing APIs and API Interactions
Break down functional requirements into business-aligned APIs with effective granularity
Given a set of APIs and specific preferences and organizational characteristics, recommend the use of an Enterprise Data Model or Bounded Context Data Models
Identify changes to an API that would require or not require a major version increment
When asynchronous execution of API invocations is needed, select when to appropriately use polling or callbacks
Identify idempotent HTTP methods and HTTP-native support for optimistic concurrency
Describe the creation and publication of reusable API-related assets using RAML and Anypoint Platform components

ARC:NET Module 4
ARC:NET Module 6
Bounded Context
Why You Should Avoid a CDM
Canonical Data Models & Microservices
HTTP/1.1: Semantics and Content
HTTP/1.1: Caching
Semantic Versioning 2.0.0
Semantic versioning of REST APIs?

Following API-Led Connectivity
Identify appropriate APIs to implement a business process and assign them to layers of API-led connectivity
Assign APIs to layers according to ownership, functional focus, and rate of change
Given specific requirements and organizational characteristics, recommend the most appropriate approach relating the API data model of System APIs to that of their backend system

ARC:NET Module 2
ARC:NET Module 4
ARC:NET Module 6

Governing APIs on Anypoint Platform
Given specific preferences and constraints, select API policy enforcement with or without API proxies
Select appropriate API policies to enforce non-functional constraints on API invocations
Given an API policy with specific characteristics, identify any change required in the corresponding RAML definition
Given a layer of API-led connectivity, identify API policies that are typically applied to that layer and the scenarios needing custom policies
Identify which types of APIs and other remote interfaces are or are not amenable to management by API Manager

ARC:NET Module 5
Controlling Access to APIs

Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API
Explain how to register an API client for access to an API version

ARC:NET Module 5

Delivering APIs
Describe the automation capabilities of Anypoint Platform for DevOps, CI/CD, and testing
Compare unit and integration tests and specify where MUnit is best employed
Explain how to use autodiscovery to link an API implementation to an API instance managed with API Manager
Specify how and when to promote APIs with API Manager
Identify when redeployment of API implementations is necessary

ARC:NET Module 7
ARC:NET Module 9
Gatekeeper Enhanced Security Reference

Deploying Mule Applications to CloudHub
Describe the fundamentals of deployments, networking, and routing on CloudHub
Select CloudHub worker sizes and configuration as appropriate
Describe the scenarios for which Object Store should be used with CloudHub

ARC:NET Module 7

Architecting Performant and Resilient APIs
Identify the factors involved in scaling API performance
Identify the differences between the CloudHub Shared and Dedicated Load Balancers
Identify single points of failure in typical CloudHub usage
Select strategies that help API clients guard against failures in API invocations

ARC:NET Module 7
ARC:NET Module 9
HYSTRIX Defend Your App
Let’s talk about Resilience
Eclipse MicroProfile Fault Tolerance

Monitoring and Analyzing Application Networks
Identify the components of Anypoint Platform that generate data for monitoring and alerting
Describe the metrics collected by Anypoint Platform on the level of API invocations
Describe and select between the options for performing API analytics within and outside of Anypoint Platform
Specify alerts to define for key metrics of API invocations for all layers of API-led connectivity
Specify alerts to define for API implementations

ARC:NET Module 10
Delivery methods
The exam is administered via the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform. The exam can be taken in-person at a testing center or online using a web camera.

In-person at a Kryterion Testing Center:

Over 1000 locations worldwide
Onsite instructions
Test-taker guide

Online using the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform:
Requires a webcam - a laptop webcam can be used, an external camera is not required
Requires internet connectivity with 1 Mbps upload, 1 Mbps download, jitter <50ms, ping <200ms
Check your internet speed and reliability
Note: Some candidates are expelled from the exam for an unstable connection even after checking reliability with the tool. If you think your connection could potentially be unreliable, we strongly recommend scheduling your exam at a test center.
Online instructions
Test-taker guide

Registration To register for the exam:

Go to Webassessor.
Create a user profile.
Log in.
Select Register for an Exam.
Select the MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect – Level 1 exam.
Select either the Online Proctoring Option or the Kryterion Test Center option.
On the payment screen, select to pay by credit card or enter a voucher/coupon code.

Note: A fee applies if an exam is cancelled or rescheduled within 72 hours of its scheduled time, even if the exam was purchased with a voucher.
QUESTION 1
What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?

A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform APIs?

A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint Exchange

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector to persist the cache's state?

A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?

A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between API implementations and API clients

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?

A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a given threat threshold

Correct Answer: B
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Wednesday, 28 March 2018

1Z0-558 Oracle Value Chain Planning: Demantra Demand Management 7 Essentials

Exam Number: 1Z0-558
Exam Title: Oracle Value Chain Planning: Demantra Demand Management 7 Essentials
Exam Details Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions:  70
Passing Score: 62%
Validated Against:  This exam has been validated against version 7.3.
Format: Multiple Choice

Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Value Chain Planning: Demantra Demand Management 7 Certified Implementation Specialis

Exam Preparation
Training Increases Your Chance of Passing
Complete Recommended Training

Complete the training below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Value Chain Planning and Demand Management 7.3 Implementation Essentials Boot Camp (available to partners only)

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Training Opportunities for Oracle Partner Network Members (available to partners only)

Review Exam Topics

Collaboration workbench
Personalize the Workbench
Configure Workbench using Admin tools
Set up and manage Tasks
Set up KPI's
Manage Content Panes

Worksheets
Explain Worksheet elements
Explain different types of Worksheets - Calendar, Content etc
Configure Embedded Worksheets
Use Open With functionality
Create a Waterfall Worksheet
View Audit Trail and Notes
Configure Worksheets using the Layout
Set up Worksheets using the Wizard
Explain the Filter Mechanism
Explain the Aggregate / Disaggregate concept

Series
Configure the different elements of Series
Configure the Client vs Server Expressions
Use Proportions for Series calculations
Use Client Expessions in Series
Configure Series Set up - Graph, Color

Security Manager
Create/Modify a User Component
Create /Modify a User
Set up Users with Series restrictions
Set up Users with Level restrictions
Set up Users with Unit restrictions
Set up User Profiles
Manage User Groups
Set up Worksheets for Open With

Workflow Manager
Explain Workflow Manager Step Types
Set up Schedules in Workflow Manager
Manage Workflow Groups
Troubleshoot Errors
View the progress and status of Jobs
Configure Level Methods

Data Model
Explain the concept of Hierarchy and Levels
Explain the types of Levels
Add a new Item and Location Level
Add a Time Level
Add Attributes to Levels
Explain the purpose and use of Attributes
Explain the Mapping of Staging tables
Explain the difference between Upgrade and a New Model
Add UOM and Price

Forecast Engine
Explain the concept of a Forecast Tree
Explain the structure and requirements of a Forecast Tree
Configure a Forecast Tree
Explain the concept of Influence Range and Influence Group
Explain the Theoretical Engine Models
Explain the application of Engine Models based on Data Quality
Explain the Engine Parameters pre-requisite to an Engine Execution
Create an Engine Profile
Specify the Demand Stream and set up the Engine Parameters
Register the Analytical Engine
Execute the Engine using Engine Administrator
Explain the Outputs for the Analytical Engine
Examine the Engine Results
Run a Simulation Scenario

Integration
Explain the Input data requirements for Demand Planning and Forecasting
Explain the use of various Data Feeds - POS, Orders, Shipments
Describe the key Demantra Data tables
Describe the key Demantra Staging tables
Describe the seeded Levels available in the Demand Management module
Collect and load basic Demantra Data
Use Integration Interfaces
Explain the structure of an Import Profile
Explain the structure of an Export Profile
Create and execute an Integration Interface
Configure Series Load and Purge options
Set up and collect Unit of Measure Conversion data
Setup and collect Currency Conversion data

Causal Factors
Explain the concept of a Causal Factor
Differentiate between Global and Local Causal Factors
Identify the pre-requisites for creating a Global Causal Factor
Identify the pre-requisites for creating a Local Causal Factor
Configure a Global Causal Factor
Configure a Local Causal Factor
Explain the Baseline Causal Factors in the Demand Management module
Explain the requirement of a Causal Factor



Saturday, 14 October 2017

C5050-408 IBM Worklight Foundation V6.2 Mobile Application Development

Number of questions: 74
Number of questions to pass: 46

Time allowed: 150 mins

The test consists of eight sections containing a total of approximately 74 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Development Environment Set-up 7%
Install and configure Worklight Studio.
Install Worklight-CLI (Command Line Interface).
Install and configure 3rd party JavaScript libraries (e.g., jQuery Mobile, Sencha, Dojo).
Install and configure an optional device specific SDK (e.g., Android SDK, Apple Xcode, Windows Visual Studio, Blackberry development tools).
Install and configure IBM Mobile Test Workbench for Worklight.

Section 2 - Development: Architecture 5%
Describe Worklight Foundation components and architecture.
Identify the anatomy of a Worklight Project and Worklight application.
Differentiate between native vs hybrid application development approaches.
Describe the default startup process in iOS-based and Android-based hybrid

Section 3 - Development: Client Side 42%
Create Worklight projects and applications with Worklight Studio and Command-Line.
Add a Worklight environment with Worklight Studio and Command-Line.
Build and deploy applications with Worklight Studio and Command-Line.
Use UI patterns.
Use common user interface (UI) controls.
Build a user interface using Rich Page Editor.
Use Worklight native APIs.
Use Geo-location APIs.
Use Apache Cordova API.
Use JSON store client side (e.g., syncing, encrypting, storing).
Provide offline access.
Implement Push and SMS Notification mechanisms.
Implement a custom startup process for hybrid applications such as iOS-based, and Android-based.
Optimize code for a specific environment (e.g., skins).
Configure minification and concatentation to optimize Worklight applications for Mobile Web.
Invoke adapter procedure on hybrid and native applications.
Use Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD) communication.
Customize iOS and Android applications (i.e. adding custom code).
Change the splash screen with JavaScript APIs, in iOS or Android-based hybrid applications.
Enable the Simple Data Sharing feature.
Add a Worklight web view into an existing native application.
Configure and customize direct update.
Globalize an application.

Section 4 - Development: Server Side 11%
Develop Worklight adapters via Worklight Studio and Worklight-CLI.
Filter adapters result data using XSLT.
Invoke Java code from adapters.
Use Worklight server side APIs.
Remove adapters and applications from Worklight Console.
Distinguish between the different types of adapters.

Section 5 - Security 15%
Implement authentication mechanisms (e.g., form-based, adapter based, custom, certificate based authentication).
Use application security mechanisms: realms and security tests.
Use the Worklight Console to control the application authenticity.
Configure application security mechanisms using the application-descriptor.xml and the authenticationConfig.xml file.
Use Direct update as a Security Realm.
Implement device provisioning.
Implement device single sign-on (SSO).

Section 6 - Deployment 7%
Configure and build an application for deployment on an external server.
Configure the Worklight Server settings in Worklight Studio.
Configure and deploy adapters using Worklight Studio and Worklight-CLI.
Demonstrate the capabilities of updating an application using Direct Update.

Section 7 - Quality Assurance 9%
Preview an application using the Mobile Browser Simulator.
Preview an application on the device emulator.
Preview an application on a physical device.
Use the Worklight Foundation V6.2 debugging tools (logs, traces, etc.).
Capture and receive uploaded client-side logs.
Create and run a mobile test using Mobile Test Workbench for Worklight (MTWW).

Section 8 - Analytics and Reports 4%
Enable raw and analytic reports in an application.
Use JSON Store Analytics.
Use Analytics dashboard.

PartnerWorld Code: 15010903
Replaces PW Code: 15010902

Status: Live
This intermediate level certification is intended for application developers who have hands-on experience using Worklight Foundation V6.2 to develop mobile hybrid and native applications.

A mobile application developer who achieves this certification can use Worklight Foundation V6.2 to develop client-side applications, develop server-side integration and security components, as well as test and deploy Worklight Foundation V6.2 projects. Overall, a mobile application developer can develop and implement mobile solutions.

The mobile application developer is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers and vendor support services. The mobile application developer efficiently uses product documentation.

To attain the IBM Certified Mobile Application Developer - Worklight Foundation V6.2 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives (skills measured on the test) and the Test preparation tab.
Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Knowledge and foundational skills one needs to possess before acquiring skills measured on the certification test. These foundational skills are NOT measured on the test. For skills measured on the test, see Test Objectives.)

Basic knowledge of:
Java programming
Web Services and REST
Database connectivity

Working knowledge of:
Eclipse based development tools
Command Line Interface (CLI)
HTML and CSS
JavaScript programming and JavaScript Framework (such as jQuery, Dojo and Sencha)
Designing applications for mobile devices
Developing hybrid and native applications for both Android and iOS

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

C5050-408 - IBM Worklight Foundation V6.2 Mobile Application Development

Each test:
contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

QUESTION 1
An application developer has determined that Worklight does not provide an authenticator that meets the complex needs of the application being developed. It is decided that the developer must implement a custom authenticator.
Which interface must the application developer implement?

A. com.worklight.core.auth.api.CustomAuthenticator
B. com.worklight.core.auth.api.AuthenticationService
C. com.worklight.server.auth.api.CustomAuthenticator
D. com.worklight.server.auth.api.WorkLightAuthenticator

Answer: D

Explanation:
Your custom authenticator class must implement the com.worklight.server.auth.api.WorkLightAuthenticator interface. References:
https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZH4A_6.2.0/com.ibm.worklight.dev.doc/ devref/ t_custom_authenticator.html


QUESTION 2
An application developer is using Worklight skins to support multiple from factors on an Android based hybrid application that will run on phones and tablet devices. The developer built skins that modify the color and size of the text in the application based on the device that it is running on. To switch between them, the developer needs to modify a file in the Worklight project.
What is the name of the file that the application developer needs to modify to set the skins to apply at runtime?

A. main.js
B. skinList.json
C. skinLoader.js
D. initOptions.js

Answer: C

Explanation:
To set which skin to apply at run time, implement the function getSkinName() in the file skinLoader.js.
References:
https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSHS8R_6.3.0/com.ibm.worklight.dev.doc/
devref/ c_developing_application_skins.html


QUESTION 3
An application developer has implemented the following security test to protect a mobile application.
<mobileSecurityTest name=”mobileTest”>
<testUser realm=”myMobileLoginForm”/>
<testDeviceID provisioningType=”none” />
</mobileSecurityTest>
The corporate security team has recently learned about cross-site request forgery (XSRF) attacks against the company's website. The corporate security team wants to prevent further attacks and has asked the developer to protect the mobile application against XSRF attacks.
What step must the application developer take to protect against XSRF attacks?

A. Nothing. By default, a mobileSecurityTest includes protection against XSRF attacks.
B. Define a new webSecurityTest and add the element <test realm=”wl_antiXSRFRealm”/>
C. Add the element <test realm=”wl_antiXSRFRealm”/> to the mobileSecurityTest definition.
D. Change the implementation to a custom security test and add the element <testXSRF realm=”wl_antiXSRFRealm” />

Answer: A

Explanation:
The mobileSecurityTest contains:
* The following realms, enabled by default: wl_anonymousUserRealm, wl_antiXSRFRealm, wl_remoteDisableRealm and wl_deviceNoProvisioningRealm. * The user and device realms that you must specify.
References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZH4A_6.1.0/com.ibm.worklight.dev.doc/ devref/ r_security_tests.html


QUESTION 4
An application developer is developing a native iOS application. The application developer needs to call a web service to retrieve application data. In order to do that, the application developer will call an existing Worklight adapter that retrieves this data.

A. MyInvokeListener
B. WLAdapterDelegate
C. WLAdapterInvocationData
D. WLProcedureInvocationData

Answer: D

Explanation:
The WLProcedureInvocationData class contains all necessary data to call a procedure, including:
The name of the adapter and procedure to call. The parameters that the procedure requires.
References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSZH4A_6.2.0/com.ibm.worklight.apiref.do c/html/refjavaworklight-android-native/html/com/worklight/wlclient/api/WLProcedureInvocationData.html

Friday, 4 August 2017

C2090-919 Informix 11.70 System Administrator

C2090-919: Informix 11.70 System Administrator

Test information:

Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English


Related certifications:

IBM Certified System Administrator - Informix 11.70




The test contains eight sections totalling approximately 63 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Installation and Configuration (12.5%)


Determine appropriate connection types and communication protocols

Plan for Distributed System capabilities

Determine the number and size and placement of logical and physical logs to accommodate transaction activity

Determine when an instance can/should use AIO or KAIO

Set up Operating System files and parameters

Deployment assistant/ Deployment utility

Knowledge of migration and upgrading

Knowledge of installation order for multiple products

Prepare and use of user defined types


Section 2 - Space Management (19%)


Configure and manage dbspaces and sbspaces

Knowledge of OLTR

Knowledge of storage pool mgmt

Knowledge of extendable chunks

Knowledge of pro-active/reactive space allocation

Knowledge of fragmentation and database design (online attach/detach)

Knowledge of compression


Section 3 - System Activity Monitoring and Troubleshooting (14%)


Monitor and isolate problems using system databases

Monitor the message log file for abnormal activity

Use the Informix utilities to view information about the database server

Use the admin API to view information about the database server

Use of concurrency and locking


Section 4 - Performance Tuning (16%)


Configure online shared memory parameters

Determine optimal disk layout and configuration

Utilize Parallel Database Query (PDQ) to optimize query performance

Use UPDATE STATISTICS to achieve optimal performance

Configure system for optimal checkpoint duration, recovery logs, auto checkpoints

Monitor the number of Virtual Processors (VPs) needed for the resources available

Manage network parameters for optimal communication performance

Knowledge of DSS vs OLTP tuning differences

Manage temporary tables and files


Section 5 - Backup and Restore (8%)


Select the appropriate backup and restore strategy and restore utilities for a particular situation

Configure Onbar parameters for optimal backup and restore performance

Configure ontape parameters for optimal backup and restore performance

Use of operation modes


Section 6 - Replication and High Availability (10%)


Demonstrate the ability to manage and configure ER

Demonstrate the ability to manage and configure GRID

Demonstrate the ability to manage and configure Mach 11 and HDR

Demonstrate knowledge of Connection Manager


Section 7 - Warehousing (8%)


Knowledge of Multi-index Star Join, Snow Flake support

Knowledge of Fragmentation

Knowledge of merge and external tables


Section 8 - Security (12.5%)


Knowledge of Non OS users

Knowledge of SRL auditing / auditing

Knowledge of trusted context

Knowledge of authentication, authorization, and encryption

Knowledge of privileges

Demonstrate ability to configure a secure DBMS - Role separation

IBM Certified System Administrator - Informix 11.70
Job Role Description / Target Audience

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to install, administer and tune, configure, monitor, and troubleshoot Informix v11.70

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Significant experience with intermediate or advanced level skills as an Informix v11.70 system/database administrator.

QUESTION 1
Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database?

A. sysdb
B. sysdblog
C. sysdatabases
D. sysdblogstatus

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility?

A. The database logging mode.
B. The schemas of remote databases.
C. The table definitions without owner names.
D. The onspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance?

A. dbinfo
B. onstat
C. dbschema
D. onmachinfo

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which onstat command will allow the gathering of statistics about the Informix Database
Scheduler tasks that are currently running or scheduled to be run?

A. onstat -g dbc
B. onstat -g sch
C. onstat -g adm
D. onstat -g tsk

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
What does the ovbuff field of an onstat -p output show?

A. The number of times that a buffer was read.
B. The number of times a buffer was extended.
C. The number of times that any buffer was overwritten.
D. The number of times the instance ran out of free buffers.

Answer: D

Explanation:


Thursday, 20 July 2017

C2090-622 IBM Cognos 10 BI Administrator

Test information:
Number of questions: 47
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English, Japanese

The Cognos 10 BI Administrator exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Manage Administrative Content (11%)
Define the steps of creating a data source
Define the steps and options to deploy content from one Cognos 10 environment to another

Manage Report Content (21%)
Identify techniques to organize report content in the portal
Describe techniques to manage report content
Describe the technique to allow users to navigate from one report to another

Manage the Server Environment (51%)
Identify Cognos 10 architecture and components
Describe how Cognos 10 processes requests
Identify installation options and configurations
Identify load balancing options
Describe tasks to implement baseline configuration and performance tuning in Cognos 10
Describe tasks used to manage dispatchers and services
Describe how to implement logging
Identify troubleshooting techniques and resources in the server environment

Manage the Security Environment (17%)
Define how authentication is implemented in Cognos 10
Define how authorization is achieved and implemented in Cognos 10

QUESTION 1
After the installation of IBM Cognos BI, what must be done to ensure that only select users have unrestricted access to Public Folders in IBM Cognos Connection?

A. Add the Anonymous user to the Directory Administrators role.
B. Remove the Everyone group from the Server Administrators role.
C. Remove the Everyone group from the System Administrators role.
D. Remove the All Authenticated Users group from the Directory Administrators role.

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
To administer the contents of namespaces, the administrator must be a member of which predefined role?

A. Report Administrators
B. Server Administrators
C. Directory Administrators
D. System Administrators

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
What permission is needed to view and change the permissions of a IBM Cognos BI object?

A. Read
B. Set Policy
C. Traverse
D. Execute

Answer: B

Monday, 17 July 2017

Exam 70-696 Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune

Published: January 23, 2015
Languages: English, Spanish, Chinese (Simplified), Chinese (Traditional), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows 8.1, Windows Server 2012 R2, Microsoft Intune
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

As of February 2016, this exam was updated to reflect Windows 10 scenarios, requirements, and any related service pack updates. To learn more about these changes and how they affect the skills measured, please download and review the Exam 70-696 change document.

Deploy and manage virtual applications (10–15%)
Prepare virtual applications
Sequence applications, install and configure the sequencer environment, prepare applications for deployment in different environments, configure virtual application interaction and sharing
Manage application virtualization environments
Configure App-V, manage application cache, configure System Tray/SFTTray.exe switches, configure application extensions with virtualized applications, configure application settings using group policies
Deploy and manage RemoteApp
Configure RemoteApp and Desktop Connections settings, configure Group Policy Objects (GPOs) for signed packages, subscribe to the RemoteApp and Desktop Connections feeds, support iOS and Android, configure Remote Desktop web access for RemoteApp distribution, configure and deploy Azure RemoteApp

Deploy and manage desktop and mobile applications (15–20%)
Plan an application distribution strategy
Considerations, including impact on clients due to offline access, deployment infrastructure, and remote locations; choose the appropriate application distribution method; plan to distribute applications to mobile devices, including Windows Phone, iOS, and Android, by using Microsoft Intune; plan to distribute applications to devices including Windows Store Apps
Deploy applications using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
Choose and configure deployment types, configure user device affinity, configure requirements, manage the software library and application catalog
Deploy applications using Microsoft Intune
Choose between automatic and manual deployment, configure application deployment policies, add software packages, configure the company portal
Plan for application upgrades
Considerations, including application version co-existence, compatibility issues, and migrating application settings and configurations; re-sequence/redeploy applications
Monitor applications
Monitor offline application usage; monitor real-time sessions; monitor application licensing usage; configure Asset Intelligence in Configuration Manager; monitor applications, using Software Center
Manage content distribution
Manage distribution points, distribution point groups, and Content Library; monitor log files

Plan and implement software updates (15–20%)
Plan and deploy third-party updates
Plan for third-party support, integrate System Center Updates Publisher with Configuration Manager
Deploy software updates by using Configuration Manager and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
Configure software update point synchronization to Windows Update, use reports and In Console Monitoring to identify required updates, create update groups, create and monitor deployments, analyze log files, configure Automatic Deployment Rules (ADR), provide secondary access to Windows Update, configure GPO settings
Servicing Windows using Microsoft Intune and the Windows as a Service Model
Use reports and In Console Monitoring to identify required updates, approve or decline updates, configure automatic approval settings, configure deadlines for update installations, deploy Microsoft and non-Microsoft updates, plan for a service branch

Manage compliance and Endpoint Protection settings (15–20%)
Build a Configuration Item (CI)
Create a CI, import a CI, set CI versioning, remediate rules
Create and monitor a baseline
Deploy a baseline, import a configuration pack, build a custom baseline
Configure Endpoint Protection
Create and manage the Endpoint Protection policy; configure definitions within the client policy; export policies; choose which template to use; select exclusions; configure Endpoint Protection, using Microsoft Intune; use In Console Monitoring to monitor client compliance

Manage Configuration Manager clients (15–20%)
Deploy and manage the client agent
Identify deployment methods, manage client agent settings
Manage collections
Plan the collection structure; define rules for collections; customize collection-specific settings, including maintenance windows and power management
Configure and monitor client status
Configure client status settings, use In Console Monitoring to determine client health, configure alert thresholds, configure client health auto-remediation

Manage inventory using Configuration Manager (10–15%)
Manage hardware and software inventory
Extend hardware inventory WMI classes, export and import WMI class settings, configure standardized vendor names, analyze the identified inventory and generate reports
Manage software metering
Create software metering rules, enable or disable auto-generated rules, report software metering results
Create reports
Clone and modify reports, create custom reports, import and export reports, manage asset intelligence, install the asset intelligence sync point, enable the WMI classes, modify categories and labels, analyze reports

Provision and manage mobile devices (10–15%)
Integrate Configuration Manager with the Exchange ActiveSync Connector
Configure and apply ActiveSync policies, view inventory on mobile devices, configure connection to an on-premises or Hosted Exchange server environment, monitor the Exchange connector log file
Manage devices with Microsoft Intune
Provision user accounts, enroll devices, integrate Microsoft Intune with Configuration Manager, view and manage all managed devices, configure the Microsoft Intune subscriptions, configure the Microsoft Intune connector site system role, manage profiles and conditional access by using Microsoft Intune
Manage connection profiles, by using Configuration Manager
Configure Remote Desktop profiles, certificate profiles, email profiles, and Wi-Fi profiles




Question 1
You need to recommend a deployment solution for App6.
What is the best recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
Select the BEST answer.

B. a local installation
C. a RemoteApp program
D. a Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) package

Answer: D


Question 2
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?

A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.

Answer: D




Question 3
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate
security policy requirements.
What should you do first?

A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.

Answer: C




Question 4
You need to make App4 available to all of the users.
What should you do?

A. Package App4 as an MSI package and upload the installer to Windows Intune.
B. Sequence App4 and use streaming delivery.
C. Deploy App4 as a Configuration Manager package.
D. Deploy App4 to a Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host) server.

Answer: D